I have some sympathy for the judge in this case. How can he declare rights in an agreement if the agreement is not in existence or available in evidence?
The rankine case is flawed throughtout, in this case.
They should have sought an s127 (c) declaration of unenforcibility due to the absence of an s60 compliant agreement. This is the problem judges have, they can only consider the cases as pleaded. They may not advise or modify the case as this might be construed as a lack of impartiality.
It is unusual for there to be no agreement because of the "statement true by creditor" clause (s172), which is why there is always a response to s78 and any response is acceptable in law. The next hurdle is s142 and/or s127 - take the proffered agreement and challenge this on the basis of the detailed provision of the legislation.
Personally, If I had a case where no agreement was forthcoming, I would not challenge on s142. The creditor has no rights in the absence of an agreement and to bring the case on behalf of the debtor presumes the contrary.
Much better to let the creditor come for you (which won't happen), seek disclosure, if no agreement, submit an embarrased defence (no agreement, how can I defend) request the court force compliance on disclosure and stay proceedings pending, then seek a strike out if the agreement is not disclosed.
To seek a hearing based on an agreement where the agreement cannot be disclosed is vexation.
QED
S