Hi - i've seen my name quoted on here so i thought i'd register and join the fight.
Re: PPI.
I claimed on the usual 4 basis: -
- implied that would assist application. This was rejected.
- Full info not provided. This was rejected – info in handbook etc.
- No financial background. Rejected due to rigorous training etc.
- Not in best interests as both receive sick pay.
This was accepted. They weren’t satisfied that their Account Manager took into consideration the existing arrangements. They had a record of my wife explaining that we both received sick pay from employers and that that would be sufficient for the loan. They therefore felt that the recommendation to take the insurance was inappropriate. Full refund + 8% statutory interest.
Re: Interest Rate.
I am currently drafting a letter – copied below but not finalised yet.
I write with reference to the secured loan that I took out with Barclays First Plus in January 2006.
I have, with concern, noted the increase to the APR applied to my loan over the 3 years since its inception and more recently have awaited confirmation of a decrease in the APR to reflect current market conditions. In the absence of any communications from you in this regard I would appreciate your answers to the questions detailed below (in bold).
Over the 3 years of the loan you have increased the APR 7 times (and decreased once). The APR when I took out the loan was 8.4%. This corresponded to a Bank of England rate of 4.5% and a 3 month LiBOR of 4.59%. My current APR is 10% with a corresponding Bank of England rate of 2% and 3 month LiBOR of 3.24% - as at 10th December. The loan was sold to me with a “Variable” APR. I note in my terms and conditions that you refer to the FHBR. This was 5% at loan inception and currently stands at 5.5%.
My loan wasn’t advertised / sold to me as a preferential start up rate or anything like that – it was simply 8.4% APR. The potential future disparity between the BoE rate / Libor (how I define market conditions) / FHBR and my APR was not explained to me. I fully expected my interest rate to be aligned to BOE rate changes – to a certain degree anyhow.
My terms and conditions are at best unclear in that yes it does clearly state that interest rates can increase & decrease (I know this) and it does say that they will change for other reasons, e.g. competitiveness. However as Barclays FirstPlus have closed their doors to new customers the competitiveness angle is no longer relevant. I suggest to you that Barclays FirstPlus customers are being used as a cash cow to support Barclays businesses that are still subject to competition.
The term “variable” was used by your salesperson and I accept that it is noted in the terms and conditions. However there was no explanation of how the APR could be amended in complete contrast to market conditions. It is my belief that you are using the term “variable” unjustly and you did not fully explain to me the implications of taking out such a loan.
Question 1 – as I understand you retain copies of the telephone sales process, do you believe that the salesperson made me fully aware of the possible APR rises, e.g. where they are not linked to BoE rates, LiBOR or FHBR?
Your loan literature defines the term “variable” as “The interest rate on your loan is variable. This simply means that your rate could go up or down in line with market conditions.” Source – Your website.
Also as I stated above the terms and conditions are at best unclear – in my opinion they are intentionally vague.
Question 2 – do you believe that the terms and conditions of the loan clearly and accurately detail the fluctuations that could occur in the APR?
Question 3 – can you fully explain how the term “in line with market conditions” is supposed to be interpreted?
The 35 repayments made to date have all been made by Direct Debit. I haven't missed or been late with a payment hence my risk is probably better than it was at the loan inception. The only conclusion I can draw is that the underlying risk of others defaulting is being used as justification for hiking my APR. I can only assume some bean counter has worked out that by charging good payers more that more than offsets those that would default anyhow.
Question 4 - Is the current 10% APR on my loan a fair reflection of a change in the underlying lending risk?
I am assuming there is a record of the basis for providing me with the loan at 8.4% APR.
Question 5 – Can you please provide a full explanation of the basis for this APR being used? If there is not a record please provide an explanation of how it was arrived at anyhow?
My APR was amended in April 07 from 9.2% to 9.7% as a direct result of a FHBR increase (source – your letter). It was then reduced in March 08 due to “market conditions” (source – your letter). The FHBR in April 07 & March 08 was 6%.
Question 6 – Can you please explain how condition 7 of my loan works in practice, specifically the variance against FHBR in any 12 month period?
Question 7 – Can you please reiterate the justification for the 8 changes to APR since the inception of the loan? As these have been in line with BoE changes i assume there is another reason due to your current failure to pass on rate reductions.
Question 8 – following on from question 5 please explain what has changed in order to arrive at the current variation from BoE / LiBOR / FHBR?
You provided a loan to me using an industry understood term – “variable”. It is my opinion that Barclays First Plus is using the term “variable” unfairly. I am under no illusions that a very basic reply will be forthcoming, however I would appreciate a response to each of the 8 questions raised above. As you can no doubt conclude my next step is to refer the matter to the Financial Ombudsman to see if they agree with your administration of my account.
Please provide a reply within 14 working days.